gpt pro 5.2 attempt on Math-785
mathematicsErdős problemscontributionManuscript
Contents
- Problem 373
- 1) FORMAL RESTATEMENT
- 2) KEY DEFINITIONS AND KNOWN FACTS
- Quick literature/context check (browsing available).
- 3) ATTEMPTED SOLUTION
- 4) DETAILED WORK (with complete reasoning)
- 4.1 A proved structural constraint: $(a_1,n]$ is prime-free
- 4.2 A fully proved numerical consequence: $a_1>n/2$ for $n\ge 4$
- 4.3 Why this does not yet imply finiteness
- 5) VERIFICATION
- 6) FINAL
- 7) COMPLETION ESTIMATE (MANDATORY)
Problem 373
1) FORMAL RESTATEMENT
For integers $n\ge 1$ and $k\ge 2$, consider solutions in integers \[ n-1>a_1\ge a_2\ge \cdots \ge a_k\ge 2 \] of the factorial Diophantine equation \[ n! = a_1!\,a_2!\cdots a_k!. \] The problem asks to prove that there are only finitely many such solutions $(n; a_1,\dots,a_k)$.2) KEY DEFINITIONS AND KNOWN FACTS
- Factorial: $n!=1\cdot2\cdots n$.
- For any prime $p$, if $p\le n$ then $p\mid n!$.
- If $a<n$ and $p$ is a prime with $a<p\le n$, then $p$ divides $n!$ but does not divide $a!$.
Quick literature/context check (browsing available).
The problem is listed as open as of late 2025. It is conjectured that the only solutions are the "Hickerson list" $9!=2!\,3!\,3!\,7!$, $10!=6!\,7!$, $10!=3!\,5!\,7!$, $16!=14!\,5!\,2!$. Conditional on the ABC conjecture, Luca proved there are only finitely many solutions. Unconditionally, Luca proved that the set of $n\le x$ admitting a nontrivial solution is very sparse (subexponential in $x$ in an explicit sense). In the case $k=2$ (and in fact for general $k$), there are strong bounds forcing $a_1$ to be extremely close to $n$ (e.g. $a_1\ge n - C\log\log n$ with an explicit constant $C$), and numerical work has ruled out additional $k=2$ solutions up to astronomically large $n$.3) ATTEMPTED SOLUTION
PHASE 1 (computational reality check). A brute-force search (by recursive factor selection with pruning) for nontrivial solutions with $n\le 30$ found exactly the classical solutions \[ \begin{aligned} 9! &= 7!\,3!\,3!\,2!,\\ 10! &= 7!\,6!,\\ 10! &= 7!\,5!\,3!,\\ 16! &= 14!\,5!\,2!, \end{aligned} \] and no others in that range.PHASE 2 (proof attempt). I attempted to prove finiteness by forcing $a_1$ to be extremely close to $n$ via prime divisibility considerations. One can show that the interval $(a_1,n]$ contains no primes, hence $a_1$ must be at least the largest prime $\le n$. This gives a nontrivial constraint (e.g. $a_1>n/2$ by Bertrand), but it does not by itself rule out infinitely many $n$ because large prime gaps exist.
4) DETAILED WORK (with complete reasoning)
4.1 A proved structural constraint: $(a_1,n]$ is prime-free
Because $p\le n$, we have $p\mid n!$.
On the other hand, for each $i\in\{1,\dots,k\}$ we have $a_i\le a_1<p$, so $p$ does not divide $a_i!$ (since all factors of $a_i!$ are at most $a_i<p$). Hence $p\nmid a_i!$ for all $i$, so $p\nmid a_1!\cdots a_k!$.
This contradicts $n! = a_1!\cdots a_k!$, because the left-hand side is divisible by $p$ while the right-hand side is not. ∎
4.2 A fully proved numerical consequence: $a_1>n/2$ for $n\ge 4$
4.3 Why this does not yet imply finiteness
Lemma Lemma shows $n-a_1$ is at most the length of the prime gap immediately preceding $n$. Prime gaps are unbounded, so this constraint alone does not rule out infinitely many solutions.To finish a proof of finiteness one seemingly needs an additional ingredient connecting the factorial-product structure to large prime factors of products of short intervals (as suggested by known reductions to bounds on $P(n(n\pm 1))$), or to show that the prime-free interval constraint forces $n-a_1$ into a regime incompatible with balancing the remaining factorial factors.
5) VERIFICATION
- Lemma Lemma uses only basic divisibility and is correct: a prime $p$ in $(a_1,n]$ divides $n!$ but cannot divide any $a_i!$ because all $a_i<p$.
- Corollary Corollary follows from Bertrand's postulate; the inequality chain is checked explicitly.
- The computational solutions listed in Phase 1 satisfy $n-1>a_1$ and $a_k\ge2$.
6) FINAL
UNRESOLVED.(i) Strongest fully proved partial result obtained here. Lemma Lemma and its corollaries: any solution forces the interval $(a_1,n]$ to contain no primes, hence $a_1\ge p^*(n)$ and in particular $a_1>n/2$ for $n\ge4$.
(ii) Weakest specific gap preventing a full proof. Even though $(a_1,n]$ must be prime-free, prime gaps can be large; I do not have an argument that combines this with the remaining factorial-product constraints to preclude infinitely many solutions.
(iii) What lemmas would be needed to complete the proof. One plausible route would be to prove that for all sufficiently large $n$, the product $\prod_{j=a_1+1}^{n} j$ necessarily has a prime factor exceeding $a_1$ unless $n-a_1$ is extremely small in a way incompatible with the factorial decomposition. Any theorem of the form \[ \max_{a<j\le n} P(j) > a\quad\text{whenever } n-a \text{ lies in some explicit range} \] would begin to convert Lemma Lemma into finiteness.
(iv) Minimal explicit computation supporting finiteness. The search up to $n\le 30$ finds only the four classical solutions listed in PHASE 1.