Math-6057-A2 · revision r1 · on Math-6057

gpt pro 5.2 attempt on Math-6057

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Unverified LLM-generated attempt. Automated screening checks form, honesty and scope, not correctness. Status at erdosproblems.com: open. Claims here do not change the source status.

Manuscript

1) FORMAL RESTATEMENT

Let phi(n) denote Euler's totient function for integers n>=1, i.e. phi(n) = |{1<=a<=n : gcd(a,n)=1}|. Question: is the set S := { n in Z_{>=1} : phi(n)=phi$n+1$ } infinite? (There is also the stronger heuristic claim mentioned in the problem text: for each fixed k>=1, are there infinitely many n with phi(n)=phi$n+1$=...=phi$n+k$? In this solution writeup I treat the k=1 question as the main problem.)

Stress points / edge cases: - n=1 gives phi$1$=phi$2$=1, so S is nonempty. - Parity: n and n+1 have opposite parity, so one is even. - The statement is purely existential/infinite; a disproof would require showing S is finite.

2) QUICK LITERATURE/CONTEXT CHECK

Only what is explicitly stated in the provided problem file: - Erdos stated that presumably for every k>=1 the system phi(n)=phi$n+1$=...=phi$n+k$ has infinitely many solutions. - Erdos--Pomerance--Sarkozy (EPS87) proved an upper bound: the number of n<=x with phi(n)=phi$n+1$ is at most x / exp( (log x)^{1/3} ).

3) ATTACK PLAN

Proof-track ideas: - Try to exhibit an explicit infinite family n_t with phi$n_t$=phi$n_t+1$. The most accessible subfamily is when n_t+1 is a power of 2, because phi$2^m$=2^{m-1} is explicit; then one needs phi$n_t$ to match a power of 2. - More generally, try to enforce phi(n)=M by forcing n to have controlled prime factorization, then solve phi$n+1$=M.

Disproof-track ideas: - A full disproof would mean proving only finitely many solutions, which is far beyond current elementary methods; no obvious finite obstruction is visible.

I pursue the explicit-family / structural-lemma route and record exact small-data.

4) WORK

FAST REALITY CHECK (exact computations)

Using a totient sieve up to 1,000,001: - There are exactly 68 integers n in [1,10^6] with phi(n)=phi$n+1$. - First 25 solutions are 1, 3, 15, 104, 164, 194, 255, 495, 584, 975, 2204, 2625, 2834, 3255, 3705, 5186, 5187, 10604, 11715, 13365, 18315, 22935, 25545, 32864, 38804. - Last 10 solutions in [1,10^6] are 546272, 568815, 589407, 679496, 686985, 840255, 914175, 936494, 952575, 983775.

For Erdos's stronger "local constant run" idea: - Up to 2,000,000, there is exactly one n with phi(n)=phi$n+1$=phi$n+2$, namely n=5186. - Up to 2,000,000, there is no n with phi(n)=phi$n+1$=phi$n+2$=phi$n+3$.

Lemma 1003.1 (odd n reduction). If n is odd and n>=1, then phi(n)=phi$n+1$ <=> phi(n)=phi$(n+1)/2$.

Proof. If n is odd then n+1 is even, so n+1=2m with m=$n+1$/2 an odd integer. Since gcd$2,m$=1 and phi is multiplicative on coprime arguments, we have phi$n+1$=phi$2m$=phi$2$phi(m). Also phi$2$=1, hence phi$n+1$=phi(m)=phi$(n+1)/2$. Therefore phi(n)=phi$n+1$ is equivalent to phi(n)=phi$(n+1)/2$. QED.

Lemma 1003.2 (classification of n with phi(n) a power of 2). Let N>=1 be an integer. Then phi(N) is a power of 2 if and only if N = 2^a * p_1 * p_2 * ... * p_t, where a>=0 and p_1,...,p_t are distinct odd primes with p_i = 2^{2^{e_i}} + 1 (i.e. primes of the form 2^m+1 with m itself a power of 2).

Proof. ("Only if") Assume phi(N)=2^s for some s>=0. Write the prime factorization N = 2^a * $\prod_{i=1}^t$ q_i^{e_i}, where q_i are distinct odd primes. Using the standard totient formula, phi(N) = phi$2^a$ * $\prod_{i=1}^t$ phi$q_i^{e_i}$ = (2^{a-1} for a>=1, or 1 for a=0) * $\prod_{i=1}^t$ $q_i^{e_i-1}(q_i-1)$.

Step 1: each odd prime appears with exponent 1. If some e_i >= 2, then the factor q_i^{e_i-1} divides phi(N). Since q_i is odd, this implies phi(N) has an odd prime factor, contradicting that phi(N) is a power of 2. Hence every e_i=1. So phi(N) = phi$2^a$ * $\prod_{i=1}^t$ $q_i - 1$.

Step 2: each q_i - 1 is a power of 2. Because q_i - 1 divides the product phi(N), and phi(N) is a power of 2, each integer q_i-1 must itself be a power of 2. Thus q_i = 2^{m_i} + 1 for some integer m_i>=1.

Step 3: if 2^{m}+1 is prime, then m is a power of 2. Write m = u v where u is odd and u>1. Let X = 2^v. Then 2^m + 1 = X^u + 1. For odd u>1, the polynomial factorization holds: X^u + 1 = $X+1$$X^{u-1} - X^{u-2} + ... - X + 1$. Both factors are integers strictly between 1 and X^u+1 when X>=2, hence X^u+1 is composite. Therefore, for 2^m+1 to be prime, m must have no odd factor >1, i.e. m is a power of 2. So each odd prime factor q_i equals 2^{2^{e_i}}+1. Also Step 1 showed the q_i appear to exponent 1 and are distinct. This proves the claimed form.

("If") Conversely, suppose N = 2^a * p_1 * ... * p_t with a>=0 and p_i distinct primes of the form p_i = 2^{2^{e_i}}+1. Then gcd$2^a, p_i$=1 and gcd$p_i,p_j$=1 for i!=j. By multiplicativity of phi, phi(N) = phi$2^a$ * $\prod_{i=1}^t$ phi$p_i$. Here phi$2^a$ is 1 if a=0 or a=1, and is 2^{a-1} if a>=2; in all cases a power of 2. Also phi$p_i$=p_i-1 = 2^{2^{e_i}}, again a power of 2. Therefore phi(N) is a product of powers of 2, hence a power of 2. QED.

Proposition 1003.3 (a fully verified infinite-family criterion, conditional). Assume there are infinitely many indices m such that the Fermat numbers F_j := 2^{2^j} + 1 are prime for all j=0,1,...,m-1. Then there are infinitely many solutions to phi(n)=phi$n+1$.

Proof. Fix such an m. Consider n := $\prod_{j=0}^{m-1}$ F_j. If all F_j are prime, then n is a product of distinct odd primes, so by multiplicativity phi(n) = $\prod_{j=0}^{m-1}$ $F_j - 1$ = $\prod_{j=0}^{m-1}$ 2^{2^j} = $2^{\sum_{j=0}^{m-1} 2^j}$ = 2^{2^m - 1}. Also we need the Fermat product identity: for every m>=1, (product_{j=0}^{m-1} F_j) = 2^{2^m} - 1. Proof (induction on m). Base m=1: the left side is F_0=2^{2^0}+1=3 and the right side is 2^{2}-1=3. Inductive step: assume P_m := product_{j=0}^{m-1} F_j = 2^{2^m} - 1. Then P_{m+1} = P_m * F_m = $2^{2^m}-1$$2^{2^m}+1$ = 2^{2^{m+1}} - 1. This proves the identity for all m. Consequently n = 2^{2^m} - 1, so n+1 = 2^{2^m}. Hence phi$n+1$ = phi$2^{2^m}$ = 2^{2^m - 1} = phi(n). So each such m yields a solution n, and infinitely many such m yield infinitely many solutions. QED.

5) VERIFICATION

- Lemma 1003.1: checked that the multiplicativity step uses gcd$2,m$=1, which holds because m=$n+1$/2 and n odd implies m odd. - Lemma 1003.2: the only delicate point is Step 3. The factorization X^u+1 for odd u is a standard algebraic identity and the inequalities for nontriviality hold because X=2^v >=2. - Computational sanity: for j=0,...,4, the Fermat numbers F_j=2^{2^j}+1 are small enough that one can verify directly they are prime (e.g. by deterministic trial division / primality testing); using these primes in Proposition 1003.3 yields n=3,15,255,65535,4294967295. A direct totient computation confirms phi$65535$=phi$65536$=32768.

6) FINAL

UNRESOLVED

(i) Strongest proved partial result. - Structural: any solution with phi(n) a power of 2 forces n to be of the form 2^a times a product of distinct Fermat primes (Lemma 1003.2). - Conditional: if infinitely many initial segments of Fermat numbers are prime, then there are infinitely many solutions (Proposition 1003.3). - Data: exactly 68 solutions n<=10^6; exactly one 3-term constant run up to 2*10^6 $n=5186$.

(ii) First gap (crisp). Prove unconditionally that the set S={n>=1 : phi(n)=phi$n+1$} is infinite (or prove it is finite).

(iii) Top 3 next moves. 1. Computation: extend the sieve search for phi(n)=phi$n+1$ and for longer constant runs phi(n)=...=phi$n+k$ to much larger bounds, and catalogue the prime factorizations of n and n+1 to guess new parametric families. 2. Construction attempt: look for families where both n and n+1 have controlled prime factorizations giving the same phi-value, e.g. enforce phi(n)=2^t * M and phi$n+1$=2^t * M with M odd-free via congruence constraints. 3. Analytic attempt: adapt the EPS87 style "rare repeated values" bounds to rule in (or out) positive lower density of solutions, or to show infinitely many solutions in sparse sequences.

(iv) What a minimal counterexample would likely look like. If the answer were "no" (only finitely many solutions), then there would exist a maximal solution N. Any proof would need a mechanism forcing phi(n) and phi$n+1$ to differ for all n>N, despite the large combinatorial freedom in prime factorizations of consecutive integers; likely such a mechanism would have to control large prime factors of n and n+1 in a way not presently available.