Math-4227 · mathematics · Number theory

Math-4227

For any given integer a > 0, are there infinitely many primes p such that a^{p − 1} ≡ 1 (mod p^{2})

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Statement

Definitions and mathematical statement

Shared notation.
$\mathbb N=\{1,2,\ldots\}$, and $\mathbb Z,\mathbb Q,\mathbb R,\mathbb C$ denote the integers, rationals, reals and complex numbers. Any other conventions are specified locally.

Fix an integer $a>0$. A prime $p$ satisfies the base-$a$ Wieferich condition when $a^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod{p^2}$. The congruence itself excludes primes dividing $a$. For $a=1$ it holds for every prime.

Statement recorded in the supplied source.
For every fixed integer $a>0$, are there infinitely many primes $p$ with $a^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod{p^2}$? [S2]

Short English statement

Does every positive integer base have infinitely many Wieferich primes? The base one case holds for all primes.

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