Math-4224 · mathematics · Number theory

Math-4224

Can a prime p satisfy $2^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$ and $3^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$ simultaneously

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Statement

Definitions and mathematical statement

Shared notation.
$\mathbb N=\{1,2,\ldots\}$, and $\mathbb Z,\mathbb Q,\mathbb R,\mathbb C$ denote the integers, rationals, reals and complex numbers. Any other conventions are specified locally.

For a prime $p\nmid a$, being Wieferich to base $a$ means $a^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod{p^2}$. A prime satisfying this for both bases $2$ and $3$ must be different from $2$ and $3$.

Statement recorded in the supplied source.
Does there exist a prime $p$ satisfying both $2^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod{p^2}$ and $3^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod{p^2}$ simultaneously? [S2]

Short English statement

Can one prime be Wieferich for both bases two and three?

Sources

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